DRAFTING OF COMMITTEE REPORTS, PREPARING BUSINESS CASES

E4-E5 Management
DRAFTING OF COMMITTEE REPORTS, PREPARING BUSINESS CASES
Q. 1 , What is a committee?

a. A group of people within an organization who share the same responsibility

b. A group of people who represent different departments and functions in the organization

c. A group of people within the organization and outside the organization who are committed to a specific task

d. A group of people within the organization who are appointed for a limited duration

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Q. 2 , What are the advantages of the committee system?

a. Fearless approach

b. Professional expertise to examine various aspects of the problem

c. Possibility to bring together a wide range of ideas, expertise and interests together

d. All of the above

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Q. 3 , What are the disadvantages of the committee system?

a. Excessive delays in decision-making and taking action

b. Absence of clear-cut authority and responsibility for results

c. Decisions that represent compromise between dissenting views rather than an optimal balance of conflicting requirements

d. All of the above

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Q. 4 , What are the generic tips for committee reports?

a. All pages must be numbered mentioning the total number of pages also.

b. In the beginning of the report, constitution of committee, its member details, authorization memo details must be mentioned.

c. Facts need to be substantiated by giving appropriate references of the file number/letter number.

d. All of the above

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Q. 5 , What must be mentioned at the beginning of the committee report?

a. Date, time and venue of the committee meetings

b. Constitution of committee and its member details

c. Authorization (formation) memo details

d. All of the above

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Q. 6 , What should be avoided while writing a committee report?

a. Use of high sounding words

b. Long sentences

c. Use of appropriate format for data tabulation/comparison

d. Punctuation

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Q. 7 , What should be included in a committee report?

a. Brief background on the task and scope of the committee

b. Observations of the committee members

c. Recommendations of the committee

d. All of the above

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Q. 8 , What should be stated in case of dissent by any member in the committee report?

a. The same should be clearly stated with reasons thereof

b. The dissenting member should resign from the committee

c. The report should be changed to reflect the views of the majority of the committee members

d. None of the above

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Q. 9 , What is a Tender Evaluation report?

a. A report that evaluates the performance of the committee in charge of a specific tender

b. A report that evaluates the tenders received for a specific project

c. A report that evaluates the performance of the organization in charge of the tender process

d. None of the above

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Q. 10 , What is a Scrapping of Assets report?

a. A report that recommends the scrapping of assets that are no longer useful to the organization

b. A report that evaluates the performance of the organization in scrapping assets

c. A report that evaluates the feasibility of scrapping assets

d. None of the above

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Q. 11 , What is an Executive Promotion Policy DPC report?

a) A report evaluating the performance of executives in an organization

b) A report outlining the policies and procedures for executive promotion

c) A report evaluating the feasibility of executive promotion

d) A report detailing the benefits of executive promotion

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Q. 12 , What is a FRAC report?

a) A report detailing the financial performance of a company

b) A report evaluating the performance of a project

c) A report evaluating the feasibility of a project

d) A report evaluating the utilization of funds for a project

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Q. 13 , What should the tender evaluation report detail besides generic tips?

A) Clarifications sought

B) Discrepancies noticed

C) Bids rejected by Tender Opening committee

D) All of the above

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Q. 14 , What is the consequence of non-fulfillment of any mandatory eligibility condition in a bid?

A) The bid will be accepted

B) The bid will be rejected

C) The bid will be negotiated

D) The bid will be reviewed

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Q. 15 , What must be checked and certified in the tender evaluation report?

A) Compliance to all eligibility conditions

B) Reasonability of rates

C) Both A and B

D) None of the above

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Q. 16 , What should be specified while assessing the reasonability of rates in the tender evaluation report?

A) The basis of arriving at such result

B) The time taken for evaluation

C) The number of bidders

D) The location of the project

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Q. 17 , What needs to be confirmed by the committee in its recommendation while evaluating the financial bid?

A) The rates are unreasonable

B) The rates are competitive

C) The rates are above market value

D) The rates are below market value

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Q. 18 , What needs to be checked and indicated in the tender evaluation report if a single bid is being evaluated?

A) Compliance to BSNL CO guidelines

B) Compliance to CVC guidelines

C) Both A and B

D) None of the above

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Q. 19 , What must be ensured while preparing the report for scrapping of assets in BSNL?

A) Compliance to CVC guidelines

B) Reasonability of rates

C) Both A and B

D) None of the above

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Q. 20 , When are equipment/items usually scrapped in BSNL?

A) When the life of the item is complete

B) When the technology of the equipment/item is outdated

C) When the repair of the equipment/item is not viable

D) All of the above

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Q. 21 , Who prepares the list of equipment/item to be scrapped in BSNL?

A) Scrapping committee

B) Concerned unit under which the equipment/item is to be scrapped

C) BSNL Corporate office

D) Field units

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Q. 22 , What does the unit in charge need to ensure before scrapping equipment/item in BSNL?

A) The equipment/item to be scrapped is of no use within the unit where it is working

B) The equipment/item to be scrapped is of no use within the whole BSNL

C) Both A and B

D) None of the above

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Q. 23 , What is the purpose of circulating a list of equipment to all the field units in BSNL?

A) To scrap the equipment/item

B) To sell the equipment/item

C) To place a demand for any of the equipment/item which is being scrapped

D) None of the above

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Q. 24 , When scrapping telecom assets in BSNL, what is the main criteria for scrapping an item?

a) The technology of the equipment is outdated

b) The life of the item is complete

c) The item is faulty and repair is not viable

d) All of the above

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Q. 25 , What should be taken into account when deciding whether to scrap an equipment/item?

a) The history sheet of the equipment/item

b) The life of the equipment/item

c) The technology of the equipment/item

d) All of the above

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Q. 26 , What should be done with equipment/items that are not scrapped?

a) They are sold to other telecom companies

b) They are kept in storage for future use

c) They are circulated to all field units for demand

d) They are sent to the vendor for repair

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Q. 27 , How is the life of telecom assets determined in BSNL?

a) By the unit in charge of the equipment/item

b) By the concerned vendor providing maintenance support

c) By the BSNL Corporate office

d) By the field units where the equipment/item is located

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Q. 28 , What data should be examined by the scrapping committee?

a) The list of equipment/items to be scrapped

b) The history sheet of the equipment/item

c) The requirement raised by the field units

d) All of the above

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Q. 29 , Who is responsible for preparing the list of equipment/items to be scrapped?

a) The scrapping committee

b) The field units where the equipment/items are located

c) The unit in charge of the equipment/items

d) The concerned vendor providing maintenance support

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Q. 30 , What is the purpose of the screening committee in the executive promotion policy of BSNL?

a. To conduct interviews with executives for promotion

b. To examine the eligibility of executives and give recommendations accordingly

c. To set the qualifying service conditions for upgradation

d. To select eligible executives for promotion based on performance ratings

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Q. 31 , When is the review for all executives meeting the qualifying service conditions done?

a. Every year on 1st October

b. Every 5 years on 1st October

c. Every 2 years on 1st January

d. Every year on 1st January

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Q. 32 , What is the basis for judging the fitness of eligible executives for promotion?

a. Experience in the current position

b. Performance ratings of ACRs/APARs

c. Educational qualifications

d. Seniority in the company

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Q. 33 , How many years of ACRs/APARs are taken into consideration for assessing the fitness of eligible executives?

a. 3 years

b. 4 years

c. 5 years

d. 6 years

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Q. 34 , What is the maximum number of average ratings allowed for SC/ST executives for upgradation from JTO to SDE?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

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Q. 35 , What is the maximum number of average ratings allowed for OC executives for upgradation from SDE to Sr. SDE?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

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Q. 36 , What is the maximum number of average ratings allowed for SC/ST executives for upgradation from Sr. SDE to STS?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

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Q. 37 , What is the maximum number of average ratings allowed for OC executives for upgradation from STS to JAG?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

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Q. 38 , What is the maximum number of average ratings allowed for SC/ST executives for upgradation from JAG to NFSGJAG?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

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Q. 39 , What is allowed on being found fit for IDA scale upgradation?

a. Transfer to a different department

b. Promotion to a higher position

c. Fixation under FR 22 (I) (a) (1)

d. Additional benefits and incentives

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Q. 40 , How are technical break periods in adhoc arrangements ordered by DOT/DTS/DTO/BSNL CO treated for the purpose of counting service in current IDA scale?

a. They are not counted

b. They are counted as continuous for all purposes

c. They are counted as continuous only for the purpose of counting current IDA scale service

d. They are counted as continuous with additional benefits

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Q. 41 , What is the purpose of the screening committee in the executive promotion policy?

A) To decide on promotions based on seniority

B) To examine the eligibility of executives and recommend IDA scale up gradation

C) To decide on transfers of executives

D) To evaluate the performance of executives

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Q. 42 , Which document is not submitted by the concerned section for the consideration of the committee?

A) Original ACRs/APARs of eligible executives for previous five years

B) Pay scale status of eligible executive on relevant dates

C) Details of intervening promotions if any

D) Salary slip of the eligible executive

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Q. 43 , Who certifies the disciplinary/vigilance clearance status of an eligible executive?

A) Screening committee

B) Accounts Officer (P&A)

C) Respective controlling officer/Vigilance section

D) HR Section

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Q. 44 , For how many years does the screening committee consider the ACRs/APARs of eligible executives for assessing their fitness?

A) 3 years

B) 4 years

C) 5 years

D) 6 years

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Q. 45 , Which of the following is not an annexure to the minutes of the screening committee meeting?

A) Pay scales status of executives on relevant dates

B) Disciplinary/vigilance clearance status

C) A copy of the executive's service book

D) ACRs/APARs grading of executives for last five years

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Q. 46 , When is the review for all executives meeting the qualifying service conditions done under the executive promotion policy?

A) 1st January every year

B) 1st February every year

C) 1st October every year

D) 1st December every year

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Q. 47 , What is the basis for judging the fitness of an eligible executive by the screening committee?

A) The executive's seniority

B) The executive's academic qualifications

C) The executive's performance rating in ACRs/APARs, subject to necessary disciplinary/vigilance clearance and no current punishment status

D) The executive's gender

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Q. 48 , What is the consequence of upgradation of IDA pay scale under the policy?

A) Change in the substantive status, designation and duties & responsibilities of the executive

B) No change in the substantive status, designation and duties & responsibilities of the executive

C) Termination of the executive's employment

D) Demotion of the executive to a lower position

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Q. 49 , Which break periods are treated as continuous for the limited purpose of counting of current IDA scale service?

A) Break periods in the regular arrangements ordered by DOT/DTS/DTO/BSNL CO

B) Break periods in the adhoc arrangements ordered by DOT/DTS/DTO/BSNL CO

C) Break periods in the regular arrangements ordered by BSNL CO

D) Break periods in the adhoc arrangements ordered by BSNL CO

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Q. 50 , What is the purpose of giving an advertisement in leading newspapers when acquiring commercial/residential premises on lease/rent?

a) To ensure competitiveness and transparency

b) To make the process lengthy

c) To limit the number of tenders

d) To increase the rent

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Q. 51 , What should be mentioned in the advertisement for hiring of accommodation?

a) Only the location

b) Area of accommodation required, locations preferable, and other terms and conditions to be quoted by the tenderer

c) Only the terms and conditions

d) Only the rent amount

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Q. 52 , What is the preferred system for inviting tenders?

a) Single bid system

b) Technical and financial bid system

c) Financial bid system only

d) None of the above

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Q. 53 , What should be assessed before opening the financial bid?

a) Legal ownership of the property

b) Suitability of accommodation

c) Terms and conditions offered

d) All of the above

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Q. 54 , What should be assessed before fixing the rent?

a) Market rate justification

b) Carpet area

c) Specifications

d) Liabilities

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Q. 55 , What should be obtained from the Civil Wing according to relevant instructions?

a) Rent justification

b) Carpet area certificate

c) Area measurement certificate

d) Legal ownership certificate

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Q. 56 , What should be mentioned in the lease deed when any premises includes any open land?

a) Only the location

b) Only the area

c) Only the boundaries

d) Full details of area/boundaries etc.

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Q. 57 , Why should there be no time gaps between dates of execution of lease deeds and dates of actual occupations of the rented premises?

a) To avoid in-fructuous expenditure

b) To increase the rent

c) To limit the number of tenders

d) To make the process lengthy

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Q. 58 , What should be sent to the landlords well in time?

a) Payment of rent

b) Appropriate notices

c) Carpet area certificate

d) None of the above

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Q. 59 , Who should get the lease deed registered and at whose expenses?

a) Tenant at his own expenses

b) Landlord at his own expenses

c) BSNL at its own expenses

d) None of the above

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Q. 60 , What should be done for payment of rent regularly?

a) Expeditious action should be taken as per rules and relevant guidelines

b) No action should be taken

c) Delayed action should be taken

d) None of the above

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Q. 61 , What is the upper limit of increase in rent after the expiry of three years lease?

a) 15%

b) 24%

c) 10%

d) 30%

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Q. 62 , What should be the basis for the increase in rent proposed by the units?

a) Market trend in the area

b) Cost of the property

c) The number of bidders

d) None of the above

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Q. 63 , When acquiring leased accommodation, what information should be included in the advertisement according to the Fair Rent Assessment guidelines?

a. The name of the landlord and their contact information

b. The location of the accommodation required and the rent amount

c. The date of occupancy and the duration of the lease

d. The area of accommodation required and other terms and conditions

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Q. 64 , What is the preferred bid system when inviting tenders for leasing accommodation according to the Fair Rent Assessment guidelines?

a. One-bid system

b. Financial bid only

c. Technical bid only

d. Two-bid system (technical and financial)

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Q. 65 , According to the Fair Rent Assessment guidelines, how should the rent for accommodation be fixed?

a. Based on the landlord's request

b. Based on the market rate justification for the area

c. Based on the total area of the building

d. Based on the landlord's expenses

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Q. 66 , What should be included in the lease deed for premises that include open land according to the Fair Rent Assessment guidelines?

a. The name of the landlord and their contact information

b. The duration of the lease and the rent amount

c. The full details of the area/boundaries of the open land

d. The carpet area of the building offered

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Q. 67 , According to the Fair Rent Assessment guidelines, what should be done to avoid in-fructuous expenditure when leasing accommodation?

a. Send appropriate notices to the landlords

b. Scrupulously ensure no time gaps between dates of execution of lease deeds and dates of actual occupation

c. Make it clear in the advertisement that the lease deed will be got registered expeditiously by the landlord at their own expenses

d. Take expeditious action for payment of rent regularly

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Q. 68 , Who is responsible for assessing rent on the basis of capital cost?

a) Circle Assessment Committee

b) E.E (Civil)

c) Local Body

d) None of the above

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Q. 69 , What are the two basic principles for assessing rent of private buildings?

a) Corporate study of rentals and size of the building

b) Location of the building and surrounding facilities

c) Recognized principles of evaluation and corporate study of rentals

d) None of the above

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Q. 70 , Who has the final decision for hiring a property?

a) The owner of the property

b) The Circle Assessment Committee

c) The authority wanting to hire the property

d) None of the above

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Q. 71 , What should be assessed while visiting the premises for hiring accommodation?

a) Availability of municipal water supply, electricity, etc.

b) Merits and demerits of the accommodation

c) Suitability of the accommodation with reference to the department's requirements

d) All of the above

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Q. 72 , What should be considered while assessing the reasonableness of rent for accommodation?

a) Prevailing rent for similar accommodation in the area

b) Size of the accommodation

c) Age of the building

d) None of the above

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Q. 73 , What should be considered while hiring land for GBT and BTS?

a) Accessibility and approachability by vehicles

b) Levelled plot with minimum undulations

c) Electric power and water supply line in close proximity

d) All of the above

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Q. 74 , What should be avoided while selecting land for GBT and BTS?

a) Land with rock at shallow depth

b) Land with high elevation

c) Land with encumbrances and encroachments

d) None of the above

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Q. 75 , What should be ensured before selecting land for GBT and BTS?

a) Availability of high tension power lines

b) Clear title and legal power of attorney to authorized person

c) Passing of sewer/water supply mains across the land

d) None of the above

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Q. 76 , What should be avoided while selecting land for GBT and BTS to avoid high cost of development?

a) Low-lying land

b) Hilly land

c) Land with trees

d) None of the above

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Q. 77 , What assurance should be obtained from the landlord while selecting land for GBT and BTS?

a) Assurance for obtaining the NOC from local body

b) Assurance for providing electricity and water supply

c) Assurance for providing building materials

d) None of the above

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Q. 78 , Who should assess the suitability of the accommodation offered for rent?

a) The landlord

b) The Circle Assessment Committee

c) The authority wanting to hire the property

d) None of the above

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Q. 79 , What should be considered while assessing the suitability of the accommodation offered for rent?

a) Availability of municipal water supply, electricity, etc.

b) Merits and demerits of the accommodation

c) Requirements of the department

d) All of the above

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Q. 80 , What is a business case?

A) A document outlining the benefits of a project

B) A detailed plan for a project

C) A summary of project outcomes

D) A description of project risks

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Q. 81 , When is a business case developed?

A) During the project initiation phase

B) During the project planning phase

C) During the project execution phase

D) During the project closure phase

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Q. 82 , What is the purpose of a business case?

A) To outline the why, what, how, and who of a project

B) To justify the resources or expenditure on a project

C) To communicate the value and benefits of a project to the business

D) All of the above

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Q. 83 , What are the components of a business case?

A) Business problem or opportunity, benefits, risk, costs, technical solutions, timescale, impact on operations, and organizational capability

B) Business vision, business need, expected benefits, strategic fit, products produced, broad estimates of time and cost, and impact on the organization

C) Business objectives, project scope, project schedule, project budget, and project team

D) Business case analysis, business case summary, business case justification, and business case recommendation

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Q. 84 , When is approval sought for a business case?

A) When the project sponsor and other interested parties agree

B) When the project planning phase is complete

C) When resources or expenditure on a project has to be justified

D) When the project is complete

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Q. 85 , Who is responsible for preparing the business case?

A) The project sponsor

B) The project manager

C) The project team

D) The executive management team

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Q. 86 , What should be the focus when writing a business case?

A) The intended audience

B) The technical details of the project

C) The benefits of the project

D) The risks associated with the project

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Q. 87 , What should be eliminated when writing a business case?

A) Technical details

B) Benefits of the project

C) Conjecture and jargon

D) Risks associated with the project

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Q. 88 , Who should contribute to the development of a business case?

A) The project sponsor only

B) All appropriate team members

C) Only subject matter experts

D) Executive management only

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Q. 89 , What is the purpose of the business case template?

A) To merge the varied and potentially complex plans into one document

B) To provide a summary of project outcomes

C) To outline the benefits of a project

D) To communicate the value and benefits of a project to the business

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Q. 90 , What is the difference between a project proposal and a business case?

A) A project proposal contains more detail than a business case

B) A project proposal focuses on why you want a project, while a business case outlines the why, what, how, and who necessary to decide if it is worthwhile continuing a project

C) A project proposal is only reviewed by the project sponsor, while a business case is reviewed by the executive management team

D) A project proposal is developed during the project initiation phase, while a business case is developed during the project planning phase

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Q. 91 , What is the purpose of assessing risk in a business case?

A) To identify potential problems with the project

B) To justify the resources or expenditure on a project

C) To communicate the value and benefits of a project to the business

D) To outline the why, what, how, and who of a project

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Q. 92 , What is the purpose of the finance section of a business case?

A) To identify the financial implications of the project

B) To ensure the project is affordable

C) To assess value for money

D) All of the above

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Q. 93 , Which is the first section of the business case?

A) Finance

B) Project Definition

C) Executive Summary

D) Project Organization

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Q. 94 , What is the purpose of the Executive Summary section in the business case?

A) To provide detailed information about the project

B) To summarize the entire business case

C) To describe the project organization

D) To identify the financial implications for the project

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Q. 95 , Who is the finance section of the business case primarily for?

A) The project sponsor

B) The project team

C) Those who approve funding

D) The project stakeholders

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Q. 96 , What is the purpose of the background information section in the business case?

A) To describe the project organization

B) To give a clear introduction to the business case and project

C) To identify the financial implications for the project

D) To assess value for money

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Q. 97 , What is the purpose of the benefits and limitations section in the business case?

A) To explain why you need a project

B) To identify the financial implications for the project

C) To assess value for money

D) To describe the project organization

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Q. 98 , Which section of the business case template describes the work needed to deliver the business objective?

A) Finance

B) Project Definition

C) Executive Summary

D) Project Organization

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Q. 99 , What is the purpose of the market assessment section in the business case?

A) To describe the project organization

B) To give a clear introduction to the business case and project

C) To provide a thorough assessment of the business context

D) To identify the financial implications for the project

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Q. 100 , What is the purpose of the risk assessment section in the business case?

A) To assess value for money

B) To identify the financial implications for the project

C) To summarize the significant project risks and opportunities and how they are managed

D) To describe the project organization

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Q. 101 , What is the purpose of the project approach section in the business case?

A) To provide a thorough assessment of the business context

B) To describe how the project is tackled

C) To summarize the significant project risks and opportunities and how they are managed

D) To identify the financial implications for the project

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Q. 102 , What is the purpose of the scope, impact, and interdependencies section in the business case?

A) To describe the project organization

B) To give a clear introduction to the business case and project

C) To summarize the significant project risks and opportunities and how they are managed

D) To describe the project's scope and boundaries and identify those business functions affected by the project

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Q. 103 , What is the purpose of the finance section in a business case template?

a) To give a clear introduction to the project and its objectives

b) To describe the work needed to deliver the project's objectives

c) To identify the financial implications for the project and ensure it is affordable

d) To assess the impact of the project on the market and the competition

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Q. 104 , What questions does the business objective section of a business case template answer?

a) What is the project scope and what are its boundaries?

b) What are the benefits and limitations of the project?

c) What are the potential solutions to the problem?

d) What is the goal of the project and how will it support the business strategy?

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Q. 105 , Why is it important to include limitations in the benefits and limitations section of a business case template?

a) To identify potential risks to the project

b) To describe the work needed to deliver the project's objectives

c) To assess the impact of the project on the market and the competition

d) To identify the financial implications for the project

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Q. 106 , What is the purpose of the option identification and selection section of a business case template?

a) To describe the work needed to deliver the project's objectives

b) To identify the financial implications for the project

c) To identify potential solutions to the problem and recommend the best option

d) To assess the impact of the project on the market and the competition

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Q. 107 , What does the scope, impact, and interdependencies section of a business case template describe?

a) The financial and non-financial benefits of the project

b) The work needed to deliver the project's objectives

c) The project scope and boundaries, and its impact on other business functions

d) The significant project risks and opportunities

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Q. 108 , What questions does the outline plan section of a business case template answer?

a) What are the potential solutions to the problem?

b) What is the project scope and what are its boundaries?

c) What is required, how is it done, who does what, and when will things happen?

d) What is the goal of the project and how will it support the business strategy?

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Q. 109 , What is the purpose of the market assessment section of a business case template?

a) To identify potential risks to the project

b) To describe the work needed to deliver the project's objectives

c) To assess the impact of the project on the market and the competition

d) To identify the financial implications for the project

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Q. 110 , What does the risk assessment section of a business case template summarize?

a) The work needed to deliver the project's objectives

b) The project scope and boundaries, and its impact on other business functions

c) The significant project risks and opportunities and how they are managed

d) The financial and non-financial benefits of the project

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