BSNL PROCUREMENT POLICY

E4-E5 Management

BSNL PROCUREMENT POLICY

Q. 1 , What percentage of BSNL's budget is used for procurement of materials?

A) 25%

B) 50%

C) 75%

D) 100%


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Q. 2 , What is the aim of BSNL's procurement policy?

A) To procure the material of the specified quality at the highest rates.

B) To procure the material of the specified quality at the most competitive rates in a fair, just, and transparent manner.

C) To procure the material of the specified quality at the lowest rates.

D) To procure the material of the specified quality without any competition.


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Q. 3 , How is the procurement of materials done in BSNL?

A) Only through M/s ITI Ltd.

B) Only by inviting tenders.

C) Both through M/s ITI Ltd. and by inviting tenders.

D) None of the above.


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Q. 4 , Which level is responsible for procurement of high-value critical equipment in BSNL?

A) BSNL Corporate Office

B) Telecom Circle H/Q

C) CGM Telecom Stores, Calcutta

D) None of the above


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Q. 5 , Which items are procured at BSNL Corporate Office?

A) Batteries & power plants

B) Line & Wire materials

C) Large size switching equipment, transmission equipment, PIJF U/G Cables, WLL equipment & terminals and new technology equipment

D) Both A and B


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Q. 6 , Which items are not covered in the procurement at corporate office and stand decentralized for procurement by Telecom Circles?

A) Batteries & power plants

B) Line & Wire materials

C) Both A and B

D) None of the above


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Q. 7 , What is the objective of BSNL's procurement policy in a liberalized telecom market?

A) To focus only on the cost of materials being procured

B) To focus only on the time required for procurement and implementation

C) To focus on the cost of materials being procured, time required for procurement and implementation, and business opportunity

D) None of the above


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Q. 8 , What is the method adopted for procurement without quotations and purchase of goods by a purchase committee in BSNL?

A) Referring to the delegation of powers

B) Referring to the schedule of delegation of administrative and financial powers

C) Both A and B

D) None of the above


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Q. 9 , What is the role of IFA in purchase proposals?

A) Finalizing the purchase proposal

B) Approving the purchase proposal

C) Evaluating the purchase proposal

D) None of the above


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Q. 10 , What is the purpose of the Stores Purchase Committee in BSNL procurement policy?

A) To finalize the purchase proposal

B) To evaluate the purchase proposal

C) To process the tender

D) None of the above


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Q. 11 , What is the Negotiations Route in BSNL procurement?

A. A route to procure additional supplies or new features from existing vendors by negotiating a rate considering the prevailing market conditions.

B. A route to procure sophisticated equipment requiring technical screening, testing, and prototype approval by Telecom Engineering Centre/Quality Assurance.

C. A route to procure new technology/equipment/new services by inviting Expression of Interest (EOI) from available vendors.

D. A route to transfer day-to-day related management responsibility to third-party companies.


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Q. 12 , What is the condition to place repeat orders under the Negotiations Route?

A. Total value of additional procurement should be below a certain threshold.

B. Total value of additional procurement should exceed a certain threshold.

C. Repeat orders can only be placed with new vendors.

D. Repeat orders can only be placed for new equipment.


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Q. 13 , What is the Limited Tender Route in BSNL procurement?

A. A route to procure additional supplies or new features from existing vendors by negotiating a rate considering the prevailing market conditions.

B. A route to procure sophisticated equipment requiring technical screening, testing, and prototype approval by Telecom Engineering Centre/Quality Assurance.

C. A route to procure new technology/equipment/new services by inviting Expression of Interest (EOI) from available vendors.

D. A route to limit the participation of unknown bidders in open tenders.


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Q. 14 , When should the Limited Tender option be exercised?

A. In specific circumstances as provided in Para 31 to 36 under Rule 128 in the General Financial Rules (GFRs).

B. Only for routine items/services of mass consumption.

C. Only when the required quantity is unknown.

D. Only for managed services and managed capacity.


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Q. 15 , What is the purpose of restricting bids by issuing limited tenders?

A. To ensure continued supplies or addition of new features from existing vendors.

B. To screen out bidders who have no proven expertise in the manufacture and supply of sophisticated equipment.

C. To invite Expression of Interest (EOI) from available vendors of new technology/equipment/new service.

D. To transfer day-to-day related management responsibility to third-party companies.


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Q. 16 , What is the Expression of Interest (EOI) Route in BSNL procurement?

A. A route to procure additional supplies or new features from existing vendors by negotiating a rate considering the prevailing market conditions.

B. A route to procure sophisticated equipment requiring technical screening, testing, and prototype approval by Telecom Engineering Centre/Quality Assurance.

C. A route to procure new technology/equipment/new services by inviting Expression of Interest (EOI) from available vendors.

D. A route to transfer day-to-day related management responsibility to third-party companies.


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Q. 17 , When should BSNL invite Expression of Interest (EOI) from available vendors?

A. When the required quantity is unknown.

B. When the specifications of new technology/equipment/new service are not firmed up.

C. When the equipment is sophisticated and requires thorough technical screening, testing, and prototype approval.

D. When immediate procurement is required.


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Q. 18 , What happens after short-listing bidders under the Expression of Interest (EOI) Route?

A. The contract is awarded to all short-listed bidders.

B. The short-listed bidders are given the tender document containing detailed technical, commercial, and financial conditions.

C. The bidders are screened out, and the route is abandoned.

D. The contract is awarded to the bidder with the lowest financial bid.


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Q. 19 , Under what circumstances would BSNL opt for the Managed Services and Managed Capacity Route?

a) Only in cases specifically approved by BSNL Board/Management Committee

b) Whenever there is a requirement for equipment testing and prototype approval

c) Whenever there is a requirement for new technology/equipment/new service

d) Whenever there is an immediate requirement for continued supplies or addition of new features from existing vendors


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Q. 20 , What is Managed Service?

a) The practice of transferring day-to-day related management responsibility as a strategic method for improved operations

b) The practice of outsourcing network planning and design to third party companies

c) The practice of transferring day-to-day network operations to third party companies

d) The practice of transferring day-to-day billing operations to third party companies


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Q. 21 , What is the purpose of the Rate Contract Route of procurement?

a) To procure routine items/services of mass consumption when the precise quantity is not known

b) To procure equipment that requires thorough technical screening, testing, and prototype approval

c) To procure new technology/equipment/new service when the specifications are not firmed up

d) To procure equipment/supplies from existing vendors at a rate negotiated with them


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Q. 22 , What should BSNL do to ensure that it has rate contracts for routine items/services of mass consumption?

a) Depend on other agencies to provide rate contracts

b) Adopt the Limited Tender Route for procurement

c) Issue Expression of Interest to potential vendors

d) Have its own rate contracts


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Q. 23 , What should be done before shortlisting bidders in the Expression of Interest Route?

a) BSNL should interact with them, obtain clarifications and feedback on the delivery of similar equipment/services elsewhere.

b) BSNL should negotiate with them to arrive at a rate.

c) BSNL should check if they have prototype approval and production clearance.

d) BSNL should check if they have proven expertise in manufacture and supply of such equipment.


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Q. 24 , When can the Negotiations Route be used?

a) Whenever there is an immediate requirement for continued supplies or addition of new features from existing vendors

b) Whenever there is a requirement for equipment testing and prototype approval

c) Whenever there is a requirement for new technology/equipment/new service

d) Whenever there is a need to screen out bidders in open tenders


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Q. 25 , When is it necessary to screen out bidders in open tenders?

a) When there is a requirement for equipment testing and prototype approval

b) When there is a need to interact only with bidders who have proven expertise in manufacture and supply of sophisticated equipment

c) When there is a requirement for new technology/equipment/new service

d) When there is an immediate requirement for continued supplies or addition of new features from existing vendors


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Q. 26 , Under what circumstances would the Expression of Interest (EOI) route be used in procurement by BSNL?

A. When BSNL wants to procure equipment with firmed-up specifications.

B. When BSNL wants to procure new technology/equipment/new service but the specifications are not firmed-up.

C. When BSNL wants to place repeat orders for supplies.

D. When BSNL wants to procure sophisticated equipment through an open tender.


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Q. 27 , What is Managed Service in telecom procurement?

A. The practice of transferring day-to-day related management responsibility to a third-party for improved operations.

B. A type of open tender for procurement of telecom equipment.

C. A procurement process for routine items/services of mass consumption.

D. A procurement process for repeat orders from existing vendors.


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Q. 28 , What are the guidelines for the Managed Services and Managed Capacity Route in procurement by BSNL?

A. The route shall be applied only in cases specifically approved by BSNL Board/ Management Committee.

B. The route shall only be used for routine items/services of mass consumption.

C. The route shall be used for procurement of new technology/equipment/new services.

D. The route shall only be used for repeat orders from existing vendors.


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Q. 29 , When would the Rate Contract Route be used in procurement by BSNL?

A. When BSNL wants to procure equipment with firmed-up specifications.

B. When BSNL wants to procure sophisticated equipment through an open tender.

C. When BSNL wants to place repeat orders for supplies.

D. When BSNL needs to procure routine items/services of mass consumption, but the precise quantity is not known.


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Q. 30 , What is the maximum percentage of quantities contained in a running contract that can be ordered through the Negotiations Route?

A. 50%

B. 75%

C. 100%

D. 150%


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Q. 31 , What is e-tendering?

a) Carrying out of tendering process through the mail

b) Carrying out of tendering process through the telephone

c) Carrying out of tendering process through the Internet

d) None of the above


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Q. 32 , What benefits does e-tendering provide to both the buyer and the suppliers?

a) Efficiency and transparency

b) Reduced competition and increased costs

c) Increased complexity and confusion

d) None of the above


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Q. 33 , What is the minimum amount for procurement cases to be processed through e-tendering method?

a) Rs 50,000

b) Rs 1 lakh

c) Rs 2 lakhs

d) Rs 5 lakhs


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Q. 34 , What is the role of the User Section in the procurement process?

a) To carry out bid opening

b) To evaluate the tender

c) To frame the tender conditions and requirements

d) All of the above


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Q. 35 , What are some common reasons for delays in finalizing tenders?

a) Restrictive eligibility conditions

b) Idealistic technical requirements

c) Contradictory clauses in the bid document

d) All of the above


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Q. 36 , What is the starting point of the procurement process for any item?

a) Approval from the competent authority

b) Forecast of its requirements

c) Tender documents

d) None of the above


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Q. 37 , What is the basis for any purchase?

a) Forecasting

b) Provisioning

c) Tendering

d) Approval


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Q. 38 , What results in infructuous expenditure in the procurement process?

a) Excessive provisioning

b) Judicious provisioning

c) Accurate forecasting

d) None of the above


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Q. 39 , What are some of the parameters based on which the forecast should be made?

a) Target of gross DELs, WLL, Cellular Mobile, Broadband, Lease Lines, etc to be provided

b) Target of Village Public Telephones to be provided

c) Requirement of Transmission media, Power Plants, Batteries and Terminal Equipment

d) All of the above


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Q. 40 , What is the lead time for procurement?

a) The time taken for approval of the competent authority

b) The time taken for forecasting

c) The time taken for delivery of equipment

d) The time taken for evaluation of tenders


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Q. 41 , When should planning/forecast for the next financial year start?

a) In January of the preceding year

b) In March of the preceding year

c) In September of the preceding year

d) In December of the preceding year


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Q. 42 , What is necessary in cases where the supplier of the equipment or the production of equipment depends on imported components?

a) Accurate forecasting

b) Judicious provisioning

c) Accurate tendering

d) None of the above


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Q. 43 , What is the significance of ensuring that the projects covered in the requirements are planned projects?

a) To ensure availability of equipment

b) To ensure the approval of the competent authorities

c) To ensure funding for the projects

d) All of the above


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Q. 44 , What is an estimated rate?

a. A rate calculated using the lowest capacity equipment price

b. A rate calculated using a yearly compounded escalation

c. A rate worked out in a realistic and objective manner based on market rates, last purchase prices, and economic indices

d. A rate calculated based on intrinsic value of the item


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Q. 45 , Who should vet the estimated rates before issue of NIT?

a. The user department

b. The finance wing

c. The supplier

d. The procurement team


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Q. 46 , What factors may be considered while framing the eligibility conditions?

a. Credentials, manufacturing capability, and quality control systems

b. Past performance for the goods in question and facility for after-sales service

c. Financial background of the supplier

d. All of the above


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Q. 47 , What is the criteria for minimum financial turnover of a bidder?

a. It should be very stringent

b. It should be too lax

c. It should be decided on a case-to-case basis by the Business Unit Head

d. It should be decided by the procurement team


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Q. 48 , What should be part of eligibility criteria regarding the bidder’s experience?

a. Experience of the bidder in respect of having performed similar works

b. Satisfactory performance of equipment or stores supplied

c. Satisfactory execution of works

d. All of the above


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Q. 49 , How should the specifications of the required good be framed?

a. Restrictive

b. Lenient

c. Attracting sufficient number of bidders

d. None of the above


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Q. 50 , What should be avoided while specifying the required goods?

a. Superfluous and non-essential features

b. Purchasing quantities in excess of requirement

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above


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Q. 51 , What should the specifications call for?

a. New unused goods

b. Obsolete goods

c. Refurbished goods

d. None of the above


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Q. 52 , What should the specifications aim at?

a. Latest proven technology

b. Procurement of obsolete goods/technology

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above


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Q. 53 , What should the specifications have emphasis on?

a. Efficiency

b. Optimum fuel/power consumption

c. Use of environmental friendly materials

d. All of the above


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Q. 54 , What should the specifications take care of?

a. Mandatory and statutory regulations of the country applicable for the goods to be purchased

b. Specifications of the proprietary purchase

c. Brand name, make or catalogue no. of a particular manufacturer

d. None of the above


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Q. 55 , When is it allowed to mention a brand name, make, or catalogue no. of a particular manufacturer in the specification?

a. Always

b. When it is unavoidable due to some compelling reasons

c. When it is not important

d. None of the above


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Q. 56 , What should the specifications and the technical details be expressed with?

a. Proper clarity without any ambiguity or double meaning

b. Improper clarity

c. Ambiguity or double meaning

d. None of the above


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Q. 57 , What should be incorporated in the specification in case of tender sample clause?

a. Advance sample by the successful bidder

b. Tender sample clause

c. Advance bulk production

d. None of the above


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Q. 58 , What is the importance of working out estimated rates in a realistic and objective manner?

a) It helps establish the reasonableness of prices

b) It reduces the time taken to procure goods

c) It ensures that the lowest capacity equipment is purchased

d) It facilitates the participation of bidders


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Q. 59 , What should be considered while framing eligibility conditions for suppliers?

a) Raw material and labor costs

b) The supplier's financial background

c) The facility for after-sales service

d) All of the above


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Q. 60 , Who is given preference among eligible suppliers?

a) Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEMs)

b) Established suppliers

c) Micro & Small Enterprises (MSEs)

d) None of the above


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Q. 61 , How should the prequalification criteria for financial turnover of a bidder be kept?

a) Very stringent

b) Too lax

c) Neither very stringent nor too lax

d) None of the above


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Q. 62 , What should be incorporated into the prequalification criteria in respect of experience of the bidder?

a) Satisfactory performance of equipment/stores supplied

b) Satisfactory execution of works

c) Both a) and b)

d) None of the above


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Q. 63 , How should the specification of the required good be framed?

a) Restrictive

b) Lenient

c) Neither too restrictive nor too lenient

d) All of the above


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Q. 64 , What should be the emphasis of the specifications?

a) Optimum fuel/power consumption

b) Reduced noise & emission levels

c) Low maintenance cost

d) All of the above


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Q. 65 , Should the specification contain any brand name, make or catalogue no. of a particular manufacturer?

a) Yes, always

b) No, never

c) Only in case of proprietary purchase from a selected single source

d) None of the above


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Q. 66 , Should the specification and technical details be expressed with proper clarity?

a) Yes, always

b) No, never

c) Only when necessary

d) None of the above


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Q. 67 , Should the tender be decided only on the basis of tender sample?

a) Yes, always

b) No, never

c) Only when specifically decided with the approval of competent authority

d) None of the above


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Q. 68 , Should the specifications be drawn in a generalized and broad-based manner to obtain competitive bids from different sources?

a) Yes, always

b) No, never

c) Only when no widely known standards exist

d) None of the above


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Q. 69 , What should be prepared for large infrastructure projects or turnkey projects?

a) Eligibility criteria

b) Estimated rates

c) Detailed Technical Requirements (DTR)

d) None of the above


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Q. 70 , What should be covered in the Detailed Technical Requirements (DTR) for large infrastructure projects or turnkey projects?

a) Solution architecture

b) Existing network architecture

c) Functional and technical requirements of the product

d) All of the above


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Q. 71 , What is the Schedule of Requirement (SOR)?

A) A list of materials required for a specific project

B) A financial report for a project

C) A schedule of events for a project

D) A list of personnel required for a project


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Q. 72 , What should be clearly indicated in the SOR?

A) The project timeline

B) The budget for the project

C) The details expected in the detailed Bill of Material (BOM) for each SOR item

D) The number of personnel required for the project


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Q. 73 , What should be considered while dealing with projects having a number of SOR items?

A) The project timeline

B) The budget for the project

C) The details expected in the detailed Bill of Material (BOM) for each SOR item

D) The project stakeholders


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Q. 74 , Who can introduce additional instructions to bidders and special commercial conditions of contract?

A) The user section

B) The MM cell

C) The Board of Directors of BSNL

D) Both A and B


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Q. 75 , What do special conditions and/or instructions constitute in the tender enquiry document?

A) Section- 1 and 2 B

B) Section- 2 and 3 B

C) Section- 3 and 4 B

D) Section- 4 and 5 B


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Q. 76 , Who has full powers for procurement of goods and services in BSNL?

A) The Board of Directors of BSNL

B) The MM cell

C) The user section

D) The IFA


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Q. 77 , Who can sanction the purchase of goods required for use in BSNL in accordance with Schedule of Delegation of Financial Powers issued by BSNL Corporate Office?

A) Any employee of BSNL

B) An authority which is competent to incur contingent expenditure

C) The Board of Directors of BSNL

D) The IFA


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Q. 78 , What should not be done for the sole purpose of avoiding the necessity of taking approval of the higher authority required for sanctioning the purchase of the original demand?

A) The demand should be split into small quantities

B) The demand should be combined with other demands

C) The demand should be delayed

D) The demand should be fulfilled without approval


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Q. 79 , With whose explicit approval can an amendment in any commercial condition of the contract be made?

A) The IFA

B) The MM cell

C) The user section

D) Management Committee of BSNL Board


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Q. 80 , What should all purchase proposals contain?

A) Quality to be purchased

B) Requirement of the items as per Norms

C) Target for the year

D) All of the above


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Q. 81 , Who needs to give finance concurrence for purchase of any item?

A) The Board of Directors of BSNL

B) The IFA of the Circle

C) The MM cell

D) The user section


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Q. 82 , What is the role of the Internal Financial Adviser (IFA) in the procurement process?

A) To prepare the Schedule of Requirement (SOR)

B) To approve the purchase proposals

C) To provide input on the quality of items to be purchased

D) To ensure adherence to procedures and terms/conditions for making purchases


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Q. 83 , When making procurements of decentralized items, what is the role of the Circle IFA?

A) To prepare the Bill of Material (BOM)

B) To approve the purchase proposals

C) To provide input on the quality of items to be purchased

D) To be an integral part of the procurement process and approve the procurements


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Q. 84 , When making a purchase, can a demand be split into small quantities to avoid taking approval of the higher authority?

A) Yes, as long as it is for a legitimate reason

B) No, it is not allowed under any circumstance

C) Only if it is approved by the Management Committee of BSNL Board

D) Only if the purchase is within the authority of the lower-level authority


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Q. 85 , Who has full powers for procurement of goods and services in BSNL?

A) The user section in consultation with the MM cell

B) The Board of Directors of BSNL

C) The authorities competent to purchase goods

D) The Internal Financial Adviser


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Q. 86 , What should be clearly indicated in the Schedule of Requirement (SOR) for each item?

A) The price of the item

B) The name of the supplier

C) The quantity of the item required

D) What details are expected in the detailed Bill of Material (BOM)


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Q. 87 , What are the “Stores purchase committees”?

a) Committees set up for each SSA to process purchases

b) Committees set up to handle sales of goods from the store

c) Committees set up to manage inventory levels in the store

d) None of the above


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Q. 88 , What is the purpose of the “Stores purchase committees”?

a) To ensure purchases are made according to existing Departmental standards and specifications

b) To sell goods from the store to customers

c) To manage inventory levels in the store

d) None of the above


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Q. 89 , What is the purpose of the Standard Tender Enquiry Document?

a) To provide guidance on how to process purchases

b) To provide guidance on how to sell goods from the store

c) To provide guidance on how to manage inventory levels in the store

d) None of the above


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Q. 90 , What should officials handling purchases do at the outset?

a) Get themselves acquainted with the purchase policy of BSNL

b) Ignore the purchase policy of BSNL

c) Create their own purchase policy

d) None of the above


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Q. 91 , What should be avoided while formulating the tender enquiry document?

a) Contradictions among the stipulations incorporated in the document

b) Duplications, except where duplication is unavoidable and necessary

c) Footnote or vague stipulation which may create confusion in the mind of the bidder

d) All of the above


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Q. 92 , What should the tender enquiry document not contain?

a) Footnote or vague stipulation, which may create confusion in the mind of the bidder

b) Contradictions among the stipulations incorporated in the document

c) Duplications, except where duplication is unavoidable and necessary

d) All of the above


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Q. 93 , What are the broad sections of the Standard Tender Enquiry Document?

a) Item Details in tender document, Tender Information, Undertaking & declaration, Bid Form & Price Schedule

b) Detailed NIT, Newspaper NIT, Tender Information, General Instructions to Bidders, Special Instructions to Bidders

c) Scope of work, Technical Specifications/ Requirements, Schedule of Requirements, General (Commercial) Conditions of Contract, Special (Commercial) Conditions of Contract

d) All of the above


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Q. 94 , What is the purpose of the Undertaking & declaration section?

a) To obtain a declaration from bidders that they have read and understood the tender documents

b) To obtain a declaration from bidders that they have never bid for a government contract before

c) To obtain a declaration from bidders that they will not disclose any confidential information obtained during the bidding process

d) None of the above


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Q. 95 , What is the purpose of the Bidder’s profile & Questionnaire section?

a) To obtain information about the bidder's past experience and qualifications

b) To obtain information about the bidder's financial status

c) To obtain information about the bidder's family background

d) None of the above


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Q. 96 , What is the purpose of the stores purchase committee?

a) To ensure that purchases are made from specific vendors only.

b) To ensure that purchases are made as per departmental standards and specifications.

c) To ensure that purchases are made quickly without any delays.

d) To ensure that purchases are made without any consideration for quality.


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Q. 97 , What is the significance of the standard tender enquiry document?

a) It streamlines the purchase system and makes it transparent, comprehensive, efficient and user-friendly.

b) It makes the tender process more complex and confusing.

c) It makes the tender process more time-consuming and delays purchases.

d) It is not necessary to use the standard tender enquiry document.


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Q. 98 , What are the different sections of the standard tender enquiry document?

a) Item Details, Tender Information, Undertaking & Declaration, Bidder’s Profile & Questionnaire.

b) Detailed NIT, Technical Specifications/ Requirements, General Instructions to Bidders, General (Commercial) Conditions of Contract.

c) Scope of work, Special Instructions to Bidders, Special (Commercial) Conditions of Contract, General Conditions of AMC.

d) All of the above.


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Q. 99 , What should be avoided while formulating the tender enquiry document?

a) Contradictions and duplications.

b) Footnotes and vague stipulations.

c) Both a and b.

d) None of the above.


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Q. 100 , What should not be included in the tender enquiry document?

a) Footnotes and vague stipulations.

b) Contradictions and duplications.

c) Stipulations that may create confusion in the mind of the bidder.

d) All of the above.


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Q. 101 , What is the purpose of the newspaper notice inviting tender (NNIT)?

a) To provide a detailed description of the goods and quantity.

b) To provide eligibility conditions.

c) To provide the cost of the tender/ bidding document.

d) To advertise the tender to a wider audience.


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Q. 102 , What should be included in the detailed notice inviting tender (DNIT)?

a) Brief description of the goods and quantity, eligibility conditions, period and terms of delivery.

b) Place(s) and timing of sale of tender documents, place and deadline for receipt of tenders, place, time & date for opening of tenders.

c) Cost of the tender/ bidding document, amount of bid security/ earnest money deposit, any other important information.

d) All of the above.


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Q. 103 , What are the broad sections of the standard tender enquiry document?

a) Item Details, Tender Information, Undertaking & Declaration, Bidder’s Profile & Questionnaire.

b) Detailed NIT, Technical Specifications/ Requirements, General Instructions to Bidders, General (Commercial) Conditions of Contract.

c) Scope of work, Special Instructions to Bidders, Special (Commercial) Conditions of Contract, General Conditions of AMC.

d) All of the above.


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Q. 104 , Which section of the tender provides information on tender methodology and payment terms?

A) Section 2

B) Section 3

C) Section 4

D) Section 5


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Q. 105 , Can the specifications of a tender be changed once it has been opened?

A) Yes

B) No

C) Only for subsequent tenders

D) None of the above


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Q. 106 , Which section of the tender provides information on the scope of work?

A) Section 2

B) Section 3A

C) Section 3B

D) Section 3C


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Q. 107 , Who is responsible for preparing Section 3 of the tender?

A) The bidder

B) The concerned user section

C) The procurement department

D) The consignee


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Q. 108 , Which section of the tender provides guidance to prospective bidders?

A) Section 2

B) Section 3

C) Section 4A

D) Section 5A


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Q. 109 , Can Special Instructions to Bidders violate any instruction/directive contained in the procurement policies of BSNL?

A) Yes

B) No

C) Only for certain aspects

D) None of the above


View answer
Q. 110 , Which section of the tender provides general rules, regulations, and conditions for the contract?

A) Section 2

B) Section 4A

C) Section 5A

D) Section 5B


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Q. 111 , Who is responsible for preparing Section 5 Part B of the tender?

A) The bidder

B) The concerned user section

C) The procurement department

D) The consignee


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Q. 112 , Can the Special (Commercial) Conditions of Contract (SCC) be modified to take care of special situations for a particular purchase case?

A) Yes

B) No

C) Only for certain areas

D) None of the above


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Q. 113 , Which section of the tender specifies the terms and mode of payment?

A) Section 2

B) Section 3

C) Section 4A

D) Section 5B


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Q. 114 , Which factor(s) determine the terms and mode of payment?

A) Milestones defined

B) Nature of goods

C) Terms of delivery

D) All of the above


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Q. 115 , What should be mentioned in Section-5 Part B (SCC) if the contract involves services such as Installation, commissioning, etc.?

A) Liquidated damages

B) Penalties applicable for delay

C) Payment terms

D) None of the above


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Q. 116 , Can the make/model of the goods be changed after the opening of bids?

A) Yes

B) No

C) Only with approval

D) None of the above


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Q. 117 , Which section of the tender provides information on the Schedule of Requirements (SOR)?

A) Section 2

B) Section 3A

C) Section 3B

D) Section 3C


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Q. 118 , What does BOM stand for in Section 3C?

A) Bill of Material

B) Basis of Measurement

C) Best of Market

D) None of the above


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Q. 119 , What information is provided in Section 2 of the tender document?

a) Scope of work

b) Technical specifications

c) Tender methodology and payment terms

d) General instructions to bidders


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Q. 120 , What is the Schedule of Requirements (SOR)?

a) A list of all the required goods and services

b) A document containing all the technical specifications

c) A description of the delivery schedule

d) None of the above


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Q. 121 , Who is responsible for preparing Section 3 of the tender document?

a) The concerned user section

b) The procurement department

c) The finance department

d) The legal department


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Q. 122 , What is the purpose of Section 4 Part A of the tender document?

a) To provide information about the scope of work

b) To provide general instructions to bidders

c) To specify the payment terms

d) None of the above


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Q. 123 , What is the purpose of Section 4 Part B of the tender document?

a) To provide information about the scope of work

b) To provide general instructions to bidders

c) To specify the payment terms

d) To provide special instructions to bidders


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Q. 124 , Who formulates Section 5 Part B (SCC) of the tender document?

a) The procurement department

b) The finance department

c) The legal department

d) The user section


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Q. 125 , Can the user section modify the General (Commercial) Conditions of Contract (GCC) to take care of special situations?

a) Yes, but only with approval from the procurement department

b) Yes, but only with approval from the legal department

c) Yes, but care should be taken not to violate the procurement policies of BSNL

d) No


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Q. 126 , What does the term Liquidated Damages (LD) refer to in the context of the tender document?

a) Penalties applicable for delay in executing services

b) Penalties applicable for delay in supply of goods

c) Penalties applicable for non-compliance with technical specifications

d) None of the above


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Q. 127 , Who should be contacted if there are any queries regarding the tender document?

a) The procurement department

b) The user section

c) The finance department

d) The legal department


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Q. 128 , What is the Earnest Money Deposit (EMD)?

a) A security deposit to ensure that the bidder will not withdraw their bid

b) A deposit to cover any liquidated damages payable by the bidder

c) An advance payment for the goods/services being procured

d) None of the above


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Q. 129 , What are the two price schedules mentioned in the tender document?

a) Part-A and Part-B

b) Part-A and Part-C

c) Part-B and Part-C

d) Part-A and Part-D


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Q. 130 , What are pre-bid clarifications?

a) Amendments made after issuing the tender document

b) Queries received after issuing the tender document

c) Changes made during evaluation of the tender document

d) Special conditions for issuing APO/PO


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Q. 131 , What should be done to the clarifications issued to avoid difficulty during evaluation and preparing special conditions?

a) They should be issued in contradictory manner

b) The original clause should be amended without stating the amended clause

c) They should be unambiguous

d) The bidder should be asked to ignore them during evaluation


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Q. 132 , What should BSNL do if a large number of clarifications have been issued resulting in changes in the tender clauses?

a) They should not issue any more clarifications

b) They should print the amended document

c) They should upload the amended document on the website or electronic tender portal

d) They should ignore the clarifications during evaluation


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Q. 133 , How should the bids be opened in case of e-Tenders?

a) Physically

b) Online

c) Both physically and online

d) By email


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Q. 134 , What should the authorized representatives of bidders do before they are allowed to participate in bid opening?

a) Sign in an attendance register

b) Submit an application to the purchaser

c) Attend a pre-bid meeting

d) Submit a financial statement


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Q. 135 , What information should be read out at the time of techno-commercial bid opening?

a) Name of the bidder

b) Name of the item

c) EMD amount & validity and acceptability

d) All of the above


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Q. 136 , In single-stage bidding & two envelopes system, when will the financial bid be opened?

a) On the date of opening of techno-commercial bids

b) On the date of tender opening given in NIT

c) After the CET evaluates Techno-commercial bids

d) It will not be opened


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Q. 137 , Who will approve the report of CET after evaluating Techno-commercial bids?

a) Bid Opening Committee

b) Purchaser

c) Competent authority

d) DGM (MMT), BSNL


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Q. 138 , What should be done to the financial bids of bidders who are approved to be techno-commercially compliant?

a) They should be evaluated by CET

b) They should be handed over to DGM (MMT), BSNL, CO./Other section in BSNL, CO./‘MM’ cell in circle/ SSA offices (as applicable) for retention

c) They should be rejected

d) They should be returned to the bidder


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Q. 139 , What are the two price schedules mentioned in the section for indigenous and imported items respectively?

a) Schedule A and Schedule B

b) Part-A and Part-B

c) Schedule I and Schedule II

d) Part-1 and Part-2


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Q. 140 , What is the purpose of pre-bid clarifications?

a) To modify the original tender document

b) To clarify any doubts or queries raised by bidders

c) To issue a revised tender document

d) To amend the terms and conditions of the tender


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Q. 141 , What should be ensured while issuing pre-bid clarifications?

a) The amended clause should be stated in proper language

b) The clarifications issued should be ambiguous

c) The original clause should not be modified

d) The clarifications should be issued after evaluation of the bids


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Q. 142 , What should be done if a large number of clarifications have been issued resulting in changes in the tender clauses?

a) The original tender document should be used for evaluation

b) The bidders should be asked to submit clause-by-clause compliance of the amended tender document

c) The amended tender document should not be used for evaluation

d) A new tender document should be issued


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Q. 143 , How should the purchaser open bids?

a) Physically in the presence of authorized representatives of bidders only

b) Online in the presence of authorized representatives of bidders only

c) Physically or online in the presence of authorized representatives of bidders who choose to attend

d) Physically or online in the absence of authorized representatives of bidders


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Q. 144 , What is the purpose of the attendance register?

a) To record the details of the authorized representatives of bidders

b) To record the details of the bids

c) To record the details of the bid opening committee

d) To record the details of the tender document


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Q. 145 , What information should be read out at the time of techno-commercial bid opening?

a) Name of the bidder, name of the item, EMD amount & validity and acceptability, information in respect of eligibility of the bidder, and details of bid modification/ withdrawal, if applicable.

b) Name of the bidder, name of the item, quantities/prices quoted in the bid, discount if offered, and taxes & levies.

c) Name of the bidder, name of the item, and EMD amount & validity and acceptability.

d) Name of the bidder, name of the item, and details of bid modification/withdrawal, if applicable.


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Q. 146 , In which case will the financial bid not be opened on the date of opening of techno-commercial bids?

a) In single stage bidding & two envelopes system

b) In single stage bidding & single envelope system

c) In two-stage bidding & two envelopes system

d) In two-stage bidding & single envelope system


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Q. 147 , What are the two price schedules mentioned in the tender document?

A) Part-A and Part-B

B) Part-C and Part-D

C) Part-X and Part-Y

D) Part-M and Part-N


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Q. 148 , Which items does Part-A of the price schedule apply to?

A) Imported items

B) Both imported and indigenous items

C) Only indigenous items

D) None of the above


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Q. 149 , Which of the following is NOT a common issue faced during evaluation and preparation of special conditions for the tender document?

A) Contradictory clarifications

B) Ambiguous language in amended clauses

C) A lack of pre-bid clarifications

D) Difficulty in understanding the tender clauses


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Q. 150 , What is the recommended approach when a large number of clarifications have been issued resulting in changes in the tender clauses?

A) Issue a new tender document with all the changes incorporated

B) Ask the bidders to submit a clause-by-clause compliance of the amended tender document

C) Ignore the changes and rely on the original tender document

D) None of the above


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Q. 151 , How should the purchaser open bids in the case of manual bidding?

A) Online

B) Physically

C) Both A and B

D) None of the above


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Q. 152 , Who can attend bid opening?

A) Only the authorized representatives of bidders who choose to attend

B) Any member of the public

C) Only the bidder who submitted the winning bid

D) None of the above


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Q. 153 , What is the purpose of the attendance register at bid opening?

A) To record the names of all bidders who submitted bids

B) To record the names of authorized representatives who are present at bid opening

C) To record the names of all attendees at the bid opening

D) None of the above


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Q. 154 , What is the purpose of the authority letter submitted by the authorized representatives of bidders?

A) To confirm the bidder's eligibility to participate in the bid opening

B) To give the authorized representative the power to bid on behalf of the bidder

C) To confirm that the authorized representative is an employee of the bidder

D) None of the above


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Q. 155 , Which envelopes are opened in a single-stage bidding and single-envelope system?

A) Only the financial bid

B) Only the techno-commercial bid

C) Both the financial and techno-commercial bids

D) None of the above


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Q. 156 , In a single-stage bidding and two-envelope system, when is the financial bid opened?

A) On the date of the tender opening

B) After the CET approves the techno-commercial bids

C) At the same time as the techno-commercial bid

D) None of the above


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Q. 157 , Who evaluates the techno-commercial bids?

A) The bidders

B) The CET

C) The financial bid opening committee

D) None of the above


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Q. 158 , What is the purpose of the TOC?

A) To evaluate the techno-commercial bids

B) To approve the CET's report

C) To open the financial bids of the approved bidders

D) None of the above


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Q. 159 , What is the purpose of clarification of bids?

a) To assist in the examination and evaluation of bids

b) To help bidders post additional bids after the deadline

c) To reject bids that are incomplete or contain errors

d) To waive minor deviations in bids


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Q. 160 , How should requests for clarification and responses be made?

a) Verbally

b) In writing

c) Through email

d) Any of the above


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Q. 161 , Can bidders initiate post-bid clarification?

a) Yes, as long as the clarification is provided in writing

b) No, post-bid clarification is not entertained

c) Only if the purchaser requests for clarification

d) Only if the bidder submits additional documents


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Q. 162 , What happens if the required documents are found wanting?

a) The bid is automatically rejected

b) The purchaser will call for clarification within a stipulated time period

c) The bidder can submit the required documents at a later stage

d) The bid will be accepted, but with a penalty


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Q. 163 , Can the purchaser call for clarification regarding the bid document?

a) No, the bid document cannot be changed after submission

b) Yes, at its discretion

c) Only if the bidder requests for clarification

d) Only if the bid is incomplete


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Q. 164 , What happens if a bidder fails to comply with the purchaser's clarification queries?

a) The bidder will be given another chance to comply

b) The bid will be rejected outright without further correspondence

c) The bidder will be penalized

d) The bid will be accepted, but at a lower price


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Q. 165 , What does the purchaser evaluate during preliminary evaluation?

a) Whether the bids are complete and whether any computational errors have been made

b) Whether the bidder has provided sureties and signed the documents properly

c) Whether the bids are generally in order

d) All of the above


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Q. 166 , How are arithmetical errors rectified?

a) By correcting the unit price and total price

b) By correcting the amounts quoted based on the percentage of duties and taxes

c) By correcting the discrepancy between words and figures

d) By summing up the breakups


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Q. 167 , What happens if there is a discrepancy between the unit price and total price?

a) The unit price shall prevail and the total price shall be corrected by the purchaser

b) The total price shall prevail and the unit price shall be corrected by the purchaser

c) Both the unit price and total price will be corrected by the bidder

d) Both the unit price and total price will be corrected by the purchaser


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Q. 168 , What happens if the bidder does not accept the correction of errors?

a) The bid will be accepted as is

b) The bidder will be given another chance to correct the errors

c) The bid will be rejected

d) The bidder will be penalized


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Q. 169 , What is the process for requesting clarification of a bid?

a) The purchaser will contact the bidder by phone

b) The request for clarification and response shall be in writing

c) The bidder can initiate post-bid clarifications

d) The bidder can only provide clarifications in person


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Q. 170 , Can a bidder provide post-bid clarifications?

a) Yes, at any time

b) Yes, at the discretion of the purchaser

c) No, post-bid clarifications will not be entertained

d) Only if the bidder pays a fee


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Q. 171 , If a bidder's documents are found wanting, what is the likely outcome?

a) The bidder's offer will be accepted regardless

b) The bidder will be given a chance to submit the missing documents

c) The bidder's offer will be rejected at that stage

d) The bidder will be asked to resubmit the entire bid


View answer
Q. 172 , Can the purchaser call for clarification regarding the bid document?

a) Yes, but only during the bid evaluation stage

b) Yes, at its discretion within a stipulated time period

c) No, the purchaser cannot ask for clarification

d) Only if the bidder pays a fee


View answer
Q. 173 , If a bidder does not comply with the purchaser's queries regarding the bid document, what will happen?

a) The bidder will be given more time to comply

b) The purchaser will request further information from the bidder

c) The bid will be outrightly rejected without further correspondence

d) The purchaser will accept the bid regardless


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Q. 174 , What criteria will the purchaser use to evaluate bids in the preliminary evaluation stage?

a) The bidder's reputation in the industry

b) The bidder's financial history

c) The completeness of the bid, the presence of computational errors, the presence of required sureties, and whether the documents have been properly signed

d) The bidder's past performance on similar projects


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Q. 175 , How will arithmetical errors be rectified?

a) By summing up the breakups if there is a discrepancy between the unit price quoted and its breakup

b) By correcting the unit price if there is a discrepancy between it and the total price obtained by multiplying the unit price and quantity

c) Both a) and b)

d) By rounding off the amounts quoted to the nearest whole number


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Q. 176 , What will happen if there is a discrepancy between the unit price and total price obtained by multiplying the unit price and quantity?

a) The unit price will be corrected and the total price will remain the same

b) The total price will be corrected and the unit price will remain the same

c) The purchaser will reject the bid

d) The bidder will be given a chance to correct the discrepancy


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Q. 177 , If there is a discrepancy between words and figures, which amount will prevail?

a) The amount in words

b) The amount in figures

c) The bidder can choose which amount to use

d) The purchaser will decide which amount to use


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Q. 178 , What is the Committee responsible for evaluating tenders called?

a) Committee for Tender Evaluation

b) Committee for Evaluation of Tender

c) Tender Evaluation Committee

d) Evaluation of Tender Committee


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Q. 179 , Who approves the formation of the CET?

a) The BSNL Board

b) The procurement branch of BSNL

c) The MM branch

d) The tender approving authority


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Q. 180 , When should the CET be formed?

a) After the opening of the bids

b) Just before the opening of the bids

c) Well in advance of the opening of the bids

d) After the recommendations of the Committee are submitted


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Q. 181 , How many members typically constitute the CET?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4


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Q. 182 , Which member of the CET is responsible for preparation of the report?

a) Technical Member

b) Commercial Member

c) Finance Member

d) Member from Operations/QA Branch


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Q. 183 , Which cell does the commercial member of the CET belong to?

a) Planning/ User Cell

b) Operations Cell

c) QA Cell

d) MM Cell


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Q. 184 , Who approves the formation of the CET for tenders issued by field units?

a) The MM branch

b) The BSNL Board

c) The tender approving authority

d) The concerned Director of BSNL Board


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Q. 185 , Which member of the CET is from the Finance Cell?

a) Technical Member

b) Commercial Member

c) Finance Member

d) Member from Operations/QA Branch


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Q. 186 , Which member of the CET is responsible for evaluating the technical aspects of the tender?

a) Technical Member

b) Commercial Member

c) Finance Member

d) Member from Operations/QA Branch


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Q. 187 , What is the level of the CET for tenders valued up to Rs 10 Crores?

a) DGM, AGM, AGM

b) DGM, DGM, DGM

c) PGM/GM, DGM, DGM

d) PGM/GM, PGM/GM, PGM/GM


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Q. 188 , What is the level of the CET for tenders valued above Rs 10 Cr & up to Rs 50 Cr?

a) DGM, AGM, AGM

b) DGM, DGM, DGM

c) PGM/GM, DGM, DGM

d) PGM/GM, PGM/GM, PGM/GM


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Q. 189 , What is the level of the CET for tenders valued above Rs 50 Cr & up to Rs 100 Cr?

a) DGM, AGM, AGM

b) DGM, DGM, DGM

c) PGM/GM, DGM, DGM

d) PGM/GM, PGM/GM, PGM/GM


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Q. 190 , What is the Committee for Evaluation of Tender (CET)?

a) A committee formed for the evaluation of each and every tender

b) A committee formed for the procurement of goods

c) A committee formed for the marketing of goods

d) A committee formed for the production of goods


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Q. 191 , Who approves the formation of the CET?

a) Tender approving authority

b) Procurement branch of BSNL

c) Concerned Director of BSNL Board

d) MM branch


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Q. 192 , When should the formation of the CET be done?

a) After the opening of the bids

b) Before the opening of the bids

c) During the evaluation of the bids

d) None of the above


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Q. 193 , How many members are there in the CET?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four


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Q. 194 , Which wings do the members of CET represent?

a) Planning/ User, MM and Finance Wings

b) Marketing, Production and Sales Wings

c) Operations, HR and Administration Wings

d) Technical, Commercial and Quality Assurance Wings


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Q. 195 , Who is the chairman/convener of the CET?

a) Member from MM cell

b) Member from Finance cell

c) Technical member from concerned User Wing

d) Member from Operations/ QA Branch


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Q. 196 , What is the prime responsibility of the chairman/convener of the CET?

a) Evaluation of tender commercially

b) Evaluation of tender financially

c) Preparation of the report

d) None of the above


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Q. 197 , Who is the commercial member of the CET?

a) Member from MM cell

b) Member from Finance cell

c) Technical member from concerned User Wing

d) Member from Operations/ QA Branch


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Q. 198 , Who is the finance member of the CET?

a) Member from MM cell

b) Member from Finance cell

c) Technical member from concerned User Wing

d) Member from Operations/ QA Branch


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Q. 199 , What is the level of CET members for tenders up to Rs 10 crores?

a) DGM (Technical), AGM (Commercial), AGM (Finance)

b) DGM (Technical), DGM (Commercial), DGM (Finance)

c) PGM/GM (Technical), DGM (Commercial), DGM (Finance)

d) PGM/GM (Technical), PGM/GM (Commercial), PGM/GM (Finance)


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Q. 200 , What is the level of CET members for tenders between Rs 10 crores and Rs 50 crores?

a) DGM (Technical), AGM (Commercial), AGM (Finance)

b) DGM (Technical), DGM (Commercial), DGM (Finance)

c) PGM/GM (Technical), DGM (Commercial), DGM (Finance)

d) PGM/GM (Technical), PGM/GM (Commercial), PGM/GM (Finance)


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Q. 201 , What is the purpose of Performance Bank Guarantees obtained from suppliers?

a) To ensure timely delivery of equipment and stores

b) To cover the risk of BSNL during contract performance

c) To guarantee that suppliers will win future tenders

d) To secure payment for the supplier after contract completion


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Q. 202 , When is a supplier required to furnish a bank guarantee?

a) After submitting a bid

b) After a tender has been evaluated and the purchase proposal of the BSNL has been approved by the competent authority

c) After signing the contract

d) After delivering the equipment and stores


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Q. 203 , What is the validity period of Performance Bank Guarantees?

a) 1 year

b) 2 years

c) 3 years

d) Depends on the delivery period


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Q. 204 , What is the consequence of a bidder trying to influence the Purchaser on any matter relating to its bid?

a) The bidder will be awarded the contract

b) The bid will be accepted

c) The bid will be rejected

d) The contract will be extended


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Q. 205 , What should be the first action taken on receipt of a bank guarantee from the supplier?

a) Enter it in the Bank Guarantee Register

b) Issue acceptance of bank guarantee to the concerned bank

c) Examine its genuineness

d) Ask for an extension of the validity period


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Q. 206 , What is the purpose of periodic monitoring of the bank guarantee register?

a) To ensure that bank guarantees are available to BSNL if required

b) To ensure that suppliers are performing satisfactorily

c) To ensure that extensions are requested in time

d) To ensure that bank guarantees are renewed on time


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Q. 207 , How often should monthly checks of pending bank guarantees be conducted?

a) Every month

b) Every 3 months

c) Every 6 months

d) Every year


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Q. 208 , What should be done if an extension of the Bank Guarantee is required?

a) The supplier should be intimated at least two months before the expiry date for furnishing the extension well in time

b) The bank should be asked for revocation 15 days before the expiry date

c) The Bank Guarantee should be allowed to expire

d) The contract should be cancelled


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Q. 209 , Which of the following is true about bidder behavior after bid opening?

A. Bidders can try to influence the Purchaser on bid-related matters.

B. Bidders cannot try to influence the Purchaser on any matter relating to its bid.

C. Bidders can try to modify their bid or influence the purchaser in bid evaluation.

D. Bidders can try to modify their bid after contract award decision.


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Q. 210 , What is the purpose of Performance Bank Guarantees?

A. To ensure suppliers are paid promptly for satisfactory work

B. To cover the risk of the supplier during contract performance

C. To extend the delivery period of the contract

D. To reduce the amount of the purchase order


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Q. 211 , When is a supplier required to furnish a Performance Bank Guarantee?

A. After receiving the letter of intent

B. After submitting a bid

C. After the contract has been awarded

D. Before submitting a bid


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Q. 212 , What is the validity period of a Performance Bank Guarantee for a delivery period of more than 1 year?

A. 2 years

B. 2 years and 6 months

C. 3 years

D. 1 year


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Q. 213 , In what situation would BSNL ask for an extension of the validity period of a Performance Bank Guarantee?

A. When the supplier has satisfactorily performed the contract

B. When the supplier has not performed satisfactorily

C. When the delivery period is extended

D. When the supplier asks for an extension


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Q. 214 , What is the first action to be taken on receipt of a bank guarantee from the supplier?

A. Acceptance of Bank Guarantee

B. Examination for Accuracy

C. Entry in Bank Guarantee Register

D. Periodic Monitoring of Register


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Q. 215 , What is done after the genuineness of the bank guarantee has been established?

A. Entry in Bank Guarantee Register

B. Acceptance of Bank Guarantee

C. Periodic Monitoring of Register

D. Examination for Accuracy


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Q. 216 , What is the purpose of the Bank Guarantee Register?

A. To cover risk during contract performance

B. To ensure payment to suppliers

C. To track the status of bank guarantees

D. To issue purchase orders to suppliers


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Q. 217 , How often should monthly checks of pending bank guarantees be carried out?

A. Every 3 months

B. Every 6 months

C. Every 9 months

D. Every 12 months


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Q. 218 , What is the importance of monitoring bank guarantees?

A. To ensure payment to suppliers

B. To cover risk during contract performance

C. To ensure remedies are available to BSNL

D. To reduce the amount of the purchase order


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Q. 219 , What should be done with bank guarantees likely to expire in the next three months?

A. Encash them

B. Follow up with the supplier regarding contract performance

C. Ignore them

D. Request an extension immediately


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Q. 220 , What are the two categories of bank guarantees likely to expire in the next three months?

A. OK and Not OK

B. Extension needed and No extension needed

C. Low-risk and High-risk

D. Performance and Payment


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Q. 221 , When should the supplier be intimated about the need for a bank guarantee extension?

A. One month before the expiry date

B. Two months before the expiry date

C. Three months before the expiry date

D. Fifteen days before the expiry date


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Q. 222 , Which of the following is true regarding the bank guarantee for purchase orders?

A) There is a practice for an omnibus bank guarantee for one year.

B) The bank guarantee of a supplier can be recorded at different places in the register.

C) The purchase order should not contain a set-off clause.

D) BSNL cannot encash any bank guarantee against any other purchase order given by the same supplier.


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Q. 223 , Which of the following is the combination that will lead to the release of the bank guarantee to the supplier?

A) 'Taken over' certificate and 'warranty period' certificate.

B) 'No claim' certificate and 'working satisfactorily' certificate.

C) 'Taken over' certificate and 'no claim' certificate.

D) 'Warranty period' certificate and 'working satisfactorily' certificate.


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Q. 224 , When is encashment of a bank guarantee resorted to?

A) When the supplier is honoring its contractual obligations.

B) When the bank guarantee has expired.

C) When the bank guarantee is still valid and the supplier fails to honor its contractual obligations.

D) When BSNL has asked for extension, and the extension has been given by the bank.


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Q. 225 , What is the acceptable form of Performance Security?

A) Account Payee Demand Draft.

B) Fixed Deposit Receipt.

C) Banker’s Cheque.

D) Bank Guarantee.


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Q. 226 , Which section of the Standard Tender Enquiry Document provides a model format of Performance Bank Guarantee?

A) Section-I.

B) Section-III.

C) Section-IV.

D) Section-IX.


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Q. 227 , What is the purpose of the Advance Purchase Order (APO)?

A) To formally accept the successful bidder/bidders.

B) To formally intimate the successful bidder/bidders of the intention of the BSNL to procure the equipment.

C) To formally approve the successful bidder/bidders.

D) To formally issue the purchase order.


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Q. 228 , What information does the APO contain?

A) File number, date, and reference of Tender Enquiry only.

B) Equipment to be procured with quantities/price only.

C) Technical specifications only.

D) File number, date, reference of Tender Enquiry, equipment to be procured with quantities/price, technical specifications, commercial conditions governing the contract, finance aspects, delivery schedule, period within which the bidder has to confirm acceptance to the APO, and annexures.


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Q. 229 , What is the acceptable form of Performance Security other than a Bank Guarantee?

A) Account Payee Demand Draft.

B) Fixed Deposit Receipt.

C) Banker’s Cheque.

D) All of the above.


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Q. 230 , What is the purpose of the Advance Purchase Order (APO)?

A) To make payment for the equipment.

B) To inform the supplier about the tender enquiry.

C) To inform the supplier about the intention of the BSNL to procure the equipment.

D) To verify the bank guarantees.


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Q. 231 , What information should the APO contain?

A) Technical specifications only

B) Commercial conditions only

C) Finance aspects only

D) Various information including technical specifications, commercial conditions, finance aspects, delivery schedule, etc.


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Q. 232 , Which of the following is an acceptable form of performance security?

A) Personal cheque

B) Credit card payment

C) Bank guarantee issued by a scheduled bank

D) Cash payment


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Q. 233 , Can the purchaser vary the quantities of goods and services specified in the schedule of requirements?

A) No, the purchaser cannot vary the quantities.

B) Yes, the purchaser can increase or decrease up to 50% of the quantity of goods and services specified in the schedule of requirements.

C) Yes, the purchaser can increase or decrease up to 25% of the quantity of goods and services specified in the schedule of requirements.

D) Yes, the purchaser can increase or decrease up to 100% of the quantity of goods and services specified in the schedule of requirements.


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Q. 234 , What precaution should be taken before resorting to encashment of a bank guarantee?

A) Verify the bank guarantees from the issuing bank before acceptance.

B) Ensure that the bank guarantee is still valid.

C) Ensure that BSNL has asked for extension well in advance.

D) Issue a formal letter to the supplier.


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Q. 235 , What is the purpose of the set-off clause in the purchase order?

A) To cover the risk element by enabling BSNL to encash any bank guarantees against any other purchase order given by the same supplier.

B) To verify the bank guarantees from the issuing bank before acceptance.

C) To ensure that the equipment has been taken over satisfactorily by BSNL.

D) To ensure that no claim is pending against the supplier.


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Q. 236 , What is the acceptable form of a performance bank guarantee (PBG)?

A) Personal cheque

B) Credit card payment

C) Account Payee Demand Draft

D) Banker’s Cheque


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Q. 237 , What is the combination of certificates that lead to the release of the bank guarantee to the supplier?

A) 'Taken over' certificate and 'no claim' certificate

B) 'Taken over' certificate and 'encashment' certificate

C) 'No claim' certificate and 'performance' certificate

D) 'Performance' certificate and 'encashment' certificate


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Q. 238 , Can the purchaser place the order for the entire tendered quantity on the bidder with the lowest evaluated price?

A) No, the purchaser cannot place the order for the entire tendered quantity on the bidder with the lowest evaluated price.

B) Yes, the purchaser can place the order for the entire tendered quantity on the bidder with the lowest evaluated price.

C) The purchaser can only place the order for a portion of the tendered quantity on the bidder with the lowest evaluated price.

D) The purchaser can only place the order for a portion of the tendered quantity on the bidder with the highest evaluated price.


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Q. 239 , What is the intention of the Purchaser on the issue of Advance Purchase Order (APO)?

A) To enter into a contract with the bidder

B) To negotiate with the bidder

C) To conduct further evaluation of the bid

D) None of the above


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Q. 240 , How long does the bidder have to give their acceptance after the issue of an Advance Purchase Order?

A) 10 days

B) 14 days

C) 21 days

D) 30 days


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Q. 241 , What is the performance security required from the bidder upon accepting the Advance Purchase Order?

A) EMBG/EMD

B) Bid security

C) Performance bond

D) Payment guarantee


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Q. 242 , What is the purpose of the second APO that may be issued to the L-1 bidder?

A) To extend the contract period

B) To increase the order quantity

C) To reduce the order quantity

D) None of the above


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Q. 243 , What constitutes the award of contract on the bidder?

A) Submission of the bid

B) Issue of the purchase order

C) Signing of the contract

D) Payment of the performance security


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Q. 244 , What happens to the bid security after the successful bidder furnishes the performance security?

A) It is discharged

B) It is forfeited

C) It is returned to the bidder

D) None of the above


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Q. 245 , When will the EMBG/EMD of the L-1 bidder be released?

A) Upon acceptance of the Advance Purchase Order

B) After finalization of ordering of complete tendered quantity

C) After signing the contract

D) None of the above


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Q. 246 , What constitutes sufficient grounds for the annulment of the award and forfeiture of the bid security?

A) Failure of the bidder to comply with the requirements

B) Request from the bidder to withdraw their bid

C) Decision of the bidder to decline the contract award

D) None of the above


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Q. 247 , What is the aim of the Government e-Market Place (GeM)?

A) To enhance transparency, efficiency, and speed in public procurement

B) To reduce the number of suppliers participating in public procurement

C) To increase the cost of public procurement

D) None of the above


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Q. 248 , Who authorized and made the purchases through GeM mandatory for government users?

A) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

B) Ministry of Finance

C) Ministry of Home Affairs

D) None of the above


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Q. 249 , What is the SPV that creates the one-stop Government e-Market Place called?

A) GeM Marketplace

B) GeM Company

C) GeM SPV

D) None of the above


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Q. 250 , What is the end-to-end online marketplace provided by GeM SPV for?

A) Procurement of goods and services by the public

B) Procurement of goods and services by the government

C) Procurement of goods and services by private companies

D) None of the above


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